Free Online USMLE Step 1 Questions and Answers 5

7. A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with fever, vomiting, and sleepiness. He had several episodes of emesis this morning, and his mother was unable to wake him from his afternoon nap. The boy has had mild rhinorrhea and fever for the past 3 days. Since the newborn period, the parents say that the patient has had multiple illnesses characterized by vomiting and sleepiness. Prior laboratory testing revealed increased blood ammonia levels during these episodes and markedly increased orotic acid excretion in the urine. Physical examination shows a tachypneic boy who is unresponsive to all stimuli. Which of the following enzymes is most likely to be deficient in this patient?

A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
B. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
C. N-acetylglutamate synthetase
D. Ornithine transcarbamylase
E. Uridine monophosphate synthetase

Correct Answer: D

Answer Explanation:

(Choices A and C) Although defects in carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I and N-Acetylglutamate synthetase also result in hyperammonemia, levels of carbamoyl phosphate are low and erotic acid is not elevated in the urine.
(Choice B) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase deficiency (Lesch-Nyhan syndrome) results in hyperuricemia because purines cannot be salvaged from degraded DNA. Urate kidney stones and self-mutilation are classic clinical manifestations.
(Choice E) Uridine monophosphate synthetase (UMPS) is part of the pyrimidine synthesis pathway. UMPS deficiency leads to orotic acid buildup (similar to OTC deficiency) but not hyperammonemia. Characteristic findings include megaloblastic anemia and delayed growth.

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8. A married couple comes to the office for routine prenatal counseling. The husband is 120 cm (3 ft 11 in) tall with disproportionately short upper and lower extremrties, a large head, and a prominent forehead. He cannot provide a biological family history because he was adopted. His spouse is average height with no dysmorphic features, and her family history is insignificant. They inquire about the likelihood that their offspring will have short stature due to the same condition as the father. Which of the following is the best response to their concerns?

A. The condition is not hereditary
B. The probability depends on the child’s biological sex
C. The probabil ity depends on the mother’s carrier status
D. The probabil ity is about 25%
E. The probability is about 50%

Correct Answer: E

Answer Explanation:

Achondroplasia occurs as a sporadic mutation in 85% of cases; advanced paternal age is a risk factor due to increased DNA replication errors during spermatogenesis. However, once a mutation occurs, it can be transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait (responsible for the remaining 15%, of cases) with complete penetrance (Choice A).
(Choice B) In sex-linked disorders, the responsible gene is located on a sex chromosome (either X or Y). Most sex-linked disorders are X-linked recessive; females with 1 copy of the defective gene will not have the disorder (they will be carriers), but all males who inherit the defective gene wi ll be affected. In X-linked dominant disorders, both males and females are affected following inheritance of the defective gene.
(Choice C) Because inheritance of only 1 mutant allele causes achondroplasia and the disease is completely penetrant, carriers do not exist. This woman must be homozygous for the normal allele (since she is average height with no features that suggest achondroplasia).
(Choice D) About 25°/o of children are affected in autosomal recessive disorders if both parents carry 1 copy of the defective gene. Many recessive disorders are the result of enzymatic deficiencies (eg, phenylketonuria) that require both copies of the gene to be knocked out, as 1 functional copy usually provides sufficient enzymatic activity to prevent occurrence of the disease.

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9. A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with severe chest pain. He has had intermittent substernal chest pain for the past few months that typically occurs after heavy activity. The boy’s activities have been limited due to the chest pain, and he is no longer able to play on the soccer team. The patient does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. His temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, pulse is 132/min, respirations are 24/min, and pulse oximetry is 98°/o on room air. BMI is 17 kg/m2 . Physical examination shows an
anxious-appearing boy with a rapid but regular pulse. No abnormalities are seen. Troponin is elevated, and ECG reveals ST segment elevations in leads II, Ill, and aVF. After acute stabilization and treatment, further laboratory workup shows an increased serum methionine level. Which of the following amino acids is most likely essential in this patient?

A. Asparagine
B. Cysteine
C. lsoleucine
D. Leucine
E. Tyrosine
F. Valine

Correct Answer: B

Answer Explanation:

(Choice A) The enzyme asparagine synthase converts aspartate to asparagine, the amino acid that is essential for rapidly dividing tumor cells that cannot produce it quickly enough on their own. The chemotherapy drug asparaginase decreases asparagine concentration in tumor cells and leads to lysis of these rapidly growing cells.
(Choices C, D, and F) Maple syrup urine disease is an amino acid disorder caused by deficiency of branchedchain a-ketoacid dehydrogenase. This deficiency leads to toxic build up of branched-chain amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, and valine) and their metabolites, resulting in feeding difficulties, seizures, cerebral edema, and a sweet odor of the urine.
(Choice E) Phenylalanine hydroxylase catalyzes the hydroxylation of the essential amino acid phenylalanine to form tyrosine. Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase is the most common cause of phenylketonuria, which results in severe intellectual disabilrty if left untreated.

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