2024 USMLE Practice Paper 1

1. A 30-year-old woman who recently gave birth presents with a painful, erythematous, and warm right breast. She reports fever and flu-like symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Immediate cessation of breastfeeding
B. Observation and reassurance
C. Incision and drainage
D. Empiric antibiotic therapy and continuation of breastfeeding
E. Needle aspiration

Correct Answer: D

Answer Explanation:

The patient presents with symptoms suggestive of lactational mastitis, which commonly occurs during breastfeeding and is caused by a bacterial infection, usually S. aureus. The appropriate management is empiric antibiotic therapy and continuation of breastfeeding to ensure drainage of the affected duct. Stopping breastfeeding can worsen the condition, and incision and drainage are not first-line treatments unless there is abscess formation.

2. A 60-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. Imaging shows multiple punctate hemorrhages involving white matter tracts. Which condition is most likely responsible for his current state?

A. Diffuse axonal injury
B. Conduction aphasia
C. Global aphasia
D. Locked-in syndrome
E. Phantom limb pain

Correct Answer: A

Answer Explanation:

Diffuse axonal injury is caused by traumatic shearing forces during rapid acceleration or deceleration, such as in motor vehicle accidents. This leads to multiple punctate hemorrhages in white matter tracts and can result in severe neurological deficits or coma. Conduction aphasia, global aphasia, locked-in syndrome, and phantom limb pain are not associated with this pattern of injury.

3. A 55-year-old male develops a bacterial abscess following an infection. Microscopic examination of the abscess shows cellular debris and numerous neutrophils. Which type of necrosis is most consistent with these findings?

A. Coagulative
B. Liquefactive
C. Caseous
D. Fat
E. Fibrinoid

Correct Answer: B

Answer Explanation:

Liquefactive necrosis is typical in bacterial abscesses where neutrophils release lysosomal enzymes that digest the tissue. This leads to the formation of cellular debris and pus. Coagulative necrosis is associated with ischemia, caseous with TB and systemic fungi, fat with pancreatitis or traumatic injury, and fibrinoid with immune-mediated vascular conditions.

4. A 45-year-old male presents with blurry vision and headache. Examination reveals the inability to move his eyes up and down. An MRI shows a lesion in the dorsal midbrain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Parinaud syndrome
B. Locked-in syndrome
C. Lateral pontine syndrome
D. Lateral medullary syndrome
E. Medial medullary syndrome

Correct Answer: A

Answer Explanation:

Parinaud syndrome is characterized by the inability to move the eyes vertically up and down and is often due to a lesion in the dorsal midbrain. Locked-in syndrome typically involves a basilar artery stroke and results in loss of horizontal, but not vertical, eye movements. Lateral pontine syndrome, lateral medullary syndrome, and medial medullary syndrome are associated with different vascular territories and stroke syndromes.

5. A biopsy of a damaged peripheral nerve shows round cellular swelling, dispersion of Nissl substance throughout the cytoplasm, and displacement of the nucleus to the periphery. What is this response known as?

A. Axonal retraction
B. Wallerian degeneration
C. Demyelination
D. Chromatolysis
E. Reactive gliosis

Correct Answer: D

Answer Explanation:

Chromatolysis is characterized by the dispersion of Nissl substance throughout the cytoplasm, round cellular swelling, and displacement of the nucleus to the periphery. It reflects the neuronal cell body’s attempt to increase protein synthesis and repair the damaged axon. Axonal retraction involves proximal axon segment retraction and new protrusions growth, Wallerian degeneration involves disintegration of the distal axon, demyelination involves loss of myelin sheath, and reactive gliosis involves glial cell proliferation in response to CNS injury.

6. A 45-year-old woman presents with episodes of severe headaches, sweating, palpitations, and pallor. Her blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg during these episodes. Laboratory tests reveal high levels of catecholamines and metanephrines in her urine. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this condition?

A. β-blockers
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Phenoxybenzamine
E. Diuretics

Correct Answer: D

Answer Explanation:

The patient’s symptoms and elevated catecholamines and metanephrines suggest a pheochromocytoma. The initial treatment involves administering an irreversible α-antagonist like phenoxybenzamine to prevent hypertensive crises. β-blockers should be given only after adequate α-blockade has been achieved to avoid unopposed α-adrenergic receptor stimulation, which can lead to severe hypertension.

7. Which of the following statements about the demographic transition model is correct?

A. Birth and mortality rates increase as a country develops.
B. Birth rates remain constant as mortality rates decline in a developing country.
C. Mortality rates decline followed by birth rates, changing the age composition of the population.
D. Birth rates decline first, followed by a decline in mortality rates.
E. The age composition remains stable as birth and mortality rates decline.

Correct Answer: C

Answer Explanation:

The demographic transition model describes how, as countries develop, both birth and mortality rates decline, but not necessarily at the same pace, leading to shifts in the age composition of the population. Initially, mortality rates decline, leading to population growth, until birth rates also decline.

8. A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with recurrent episodes of intense fear and discomfort that peak within 10 minutes. She describes palpitations, sweating, shortness of breath, and a fear of losing control during these episodes. She avoids certain situations due to the fear of experiencing another episode. These symptoms have been persistent over the last two months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Agoraphobia
E. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Correct Answer: B

Answer Explanation:

The patient’s recurrent episodes of intense fear and discomfort peaking within 10 minutes, along with physical symptoms like palpitations, sweating, and shortness of breath, combined with the persistence of concern about future attacks, are characteristic of panic disorder. Generalized anxiety disorder involves excessive anxiety about various aspects of daily life for more than six months, but without distinct panic attacks. Social anxiety disorder involves fear of social situations, not sudden panic attacks. Agoraphobia involves fear or anxiety about at least two specific situations where escape might be difficult. Obsessive-compulsive disorder involves recurring intrusive thoughts and repetitive actions.

9. A patient with known cerebellar damage is undergoing a neurological examination. Which of the following tests is NOT typically associated with cerebellar function assessment?

A. Rapid alternating movements (pronation/supination)
B. Finger-to-nose test
C. Heel-to-shin test
D. Romberg test
E. Gait analysis

Correct Answer: D

Answer Explanation:

The Romberg test is primarily used to assess the integrity of the dorsal columns of the spinal cord, which are responsible for proprioception. While cerebellar dysfunction can lead to balance issues, the Romberg test specifically evaluates sensory ataxia rather than cerebellar ataxia.

10. A 70-year-old woman develops muscle weakness and thinning of the muscles in her legs after being bedridden for several weeks due to a hip fracture. Which cellular process is most likely occurring in her muscles?

A. Hypertrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Atrophy
D. Metaplasia
E. Dysplasia

Correct Answer: C

Answer Explanation:

The patient’s muscle weakness and thinning of the muscles are due to atrophy, which is a decrease in cell size and/or number. This process is commonly caused by disuse, as seen in patients who are bedridden for extended periods. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in cell size, hyperplasia refers to an increase in cell number, metaplasia is the replacement of one cell type by another, and dysplasia represents disordered cell growth.

< PREVIOUS POST2024 CFA Mock Test 4

Leave A Comment?