NCLEX Daily Practical Exercise 26

Welcome to our NCLEX Daily Ten Practice! This practice is designed to help you solidify your knowledge, improve your skills, and prepare thoroughly for the NCLEX exam. With ten questions to tackle each day, you’ll have the opportunity to review a broad range of subjects covered in the NCLEX exam.

 

1. The client with varicella will most likely have an order for which category of medication?

D. Anticoagulants

Correct Answer: C

Answer Explanation:

Varicella is chickenpox. This herpes virus is treated with antiviral medications. In adults, infection tends to be more severe, and treatment with antiviral drugs (acyclovir or valacyclovir) is advised if they can be started within 24 to 48 hours of rash onset. In children, acyclovir decreases symptoms by one day if taken within 24 hours of the start of the rash, but it has no effect on complication rates, and it is not recommended for individuals with normal immune function.

Option A: The pharmacology behind antibiotics includes destroying the bacterial cell by either preventing cell reproduction or changing a necessary cellular function or process within the cell. Antimicrobial agents are classically grouped into 2 main categories based on their in vitro effect on bacteria: bactericidal and bacteriostatic.
Option B: The client might have a fever before the rash appears, but when the rash appears, the temperature is usually gone, so answer B is incorrect. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are a drug class FDA-approved for use as antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, and analgesic agents. These effects make NSAIDs useful for the treatment of muscle pain, dysmenorrhea, arthritic conditions, pyrexia, gout, migraines, and used as opioid-sparing agents in certain acute trauma cases.
Option D: The client is not treated with anticoagulants as stated in answer D. Anticoagulants derive their effect by acting at different sites of the coagulation cascade. Some act directly by enzyme inhibition, while others indirectly, by binding to antithrombin or by preventing their synthesis from the liver (vitamin K dependent factors).

ADVERTISEMENT

2. A client is admitted complaining of chest pain. Which of the following drug orders should the nurse question?

Correct Answer: B

Answer Explanation:

There is no indication for an antibiotic such as Ampicillin. Penicillins had been very effective against S. aureus; in the past, however, S. aureus has become capable of exhibiting resistance against them by producing a penicillin hydrolyzing enzyme – penicillinase. After that, subsequent efforts to overcome this issue and extend the antimicrobial coverage of penicillins, ampicillin was developed. It is also resistant to acid so that it can be administered orally.

Option A: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilatory drug used primarily to provide relief from anginal chest pain. Nitroglycerin has been FDA approved since 2000 and was first sold by Pfizer under the brand name Nitrostat. It is currently FDA approved for the acute relief of an attack or acute prophylaxis of angina pectoris secondary to coronary artery disease.
Option C: B-adrenoceptor antagonists, including propranolol, have been advised to be used for the treatment of heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and coronary artery disease. Furthermore, they have demonstrated to improve mortality and morbidity in those with hypertension that is complicated with heart failure, angina, or any history of previous myocardial infarctions.
Option D: Clients with chest pain can be treated with nitroglycerin, a beta-blocker such as propranolol, or Verapamil. Given as initial treatment in patients with: (1) Non-ST elevation acute coronary syndrome(NSTE-ACS, (2) continuing or frequently recurring ischemia and are unable to use beta-blockers (e.g., contraindication, suffered from unacceptable adverse effects, beta-blockers were insufficient for treatment).

ADVERTISEMENT

3. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching for the client with rheumatoid arthritis?

Correct Answer: B

Answer Explanation:

Anti-inflammatory drugs should be taken with meals to avoid stomach upset. Disease-modifying, anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) are initiated as soon as the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is made. Traditional or conventional DMARD include methotrexate, leflunomide, sulfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine. Biologic DMARDs include TNF (tumor necrosis factor): Adalimumab, Etanercept, Infliximab, Golilumab, Certolizumab. And non-TNF inhibitors: Tocilizumab (Interleukin-6 inhibitor), Abatacept (inhibits T-cell costimulation), Rituximab (anti-B cell).

Option A: Clients with rheumatoid arthritis should exercise, but not to the point of pain. The patient should enroll in an exercise program to recover joint function. An occupational therapy consult can help the patient manage daily living activities.
Option C: Alternating hot and cold is not necessary, especially because warm, moist soaks are more useful in decreasing pain. Provide a variety of comfort measures (eg, application of heat or cold; massage, position changes, rest; foam mattress, supportive pillow, splints; relaxation techniques, diversional activities).
Option D: Weight-bearing activities such as walking are useful but are not the best answer for the stem. Encourage independence in mobility and assist as needed: Allow ample time for activity; provide rest period after activity; reinforce principles of joint protection and work simplification.

ADVERTISEMENT

4. A client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe abdominal pain. Which of the following orders should be questioned by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Answer Explanation:

Morphine is contraindicated in clients with gallbladder disease and pancreatitis because morphine causes spasms of the Sphincter of Oddi. GI obstruction is another important contraindication. It is also considered by many as a contraindication to provide opioids to individuals that have a history of substance misuse, especially if a patient has had a history of abusing opioids.

Option A: Clinicians use meperidine is used for the treatment of moderate to severe pain. It has intramuscular, subcutaneous, intravenous injection, syrup, and tablet forms. In the 20th century, it was the drug of choice amongst the opioids in the management of acute pain by most of the physicians and the management of some patients with chronic pain.
Option B: Antacids are a group of drugs that have been on the market for many years. They were initially first-line defense against peptic ulcer disease; however, the discovery of proton pump inhibitors revolutionized the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. Currently, antacid use is restricted to the relief of mild intermittent gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) associated heartburn.
Option C: Cimetidine is ordered for pancreatitis, making answer C incorrect. Cimetidine is a gastric acid reducer used in the short-term treatment of duodenal and gastric ulcers. The drug is effective in managing gastric hypersecretion, and therefore, used for the management of reflux esophagitis disease and in the prevention of stress ulcers. With the development of proton pump inhibitors, such as omeprazole, approved for the same indications, cimetidine is available as an over the counter formulation for the prevention of heartburn or acid indigestion, along with the other H2-receptor antagonists.

ADVERTISEMENT

5. The client is admitted to the chemical dependence unit with an order for continuous observation. The nurse is aware that the doctor has ordered continuous observation because:

Correct Answer: B

Answer Explanation:

Hallucinogenic drugs can cause hallucinations. Continuous observation is ordered to prevent the client from harming himself during withdrawal. Adverse effects are extremely subjective, with significant variability and unpredictability. One patient may experience a positive effect filled with bright hallucinations, sights and sensations, increased awareness owing to mind expansion, and marked euphoria. The positive spectrum of effects is colloquially called a “good trip.”

Option A: Another patient may experience the total opposite that is filled with increased anxiety becoming panic, fear, depression, despair, and disappointment. The negative spectrum is colloquially called a “bad trip.” One patient can experience both the positive and negative spectrum at different times of use.
Option C: Hallucinogenic drugs don’t create both stimulant and depressant effects or produce severe respiratory depression. One of the more disturbing side effects of LSD is the flashback. Flashbacks can be induced by stress or fatigue and by using other drugs. Often a flashback of a “bad trip” can occur without warning, even if the patient was not currently under the influence of LSD.
Option D: They do produce psychological dependence rather than physical dependence. Daily ingestion is almost impossible because it produces an absurd “good trip” or high, making abuse of LSD difficult. The dependence on LSD, therefore, is not from physical effects or cravings but psychological dependence or need.

ADVERTISEMENT

Leave A Comment?